Buried in the last paragraph of a NY Times article on the China - Raw Materials case, I saw this:
Western governments have periodically considered filing an international trade case against nations in the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries for limiting oil exports. But they have refrained from filing, having concluded that even an adverse ruling would be unlikely to prompt heavily oil-dependent countries to change their policies.
Is that correct? I had never heard that before. I always assumed it was because OPEC limits production, not exports, which makes the legal case a difficult one.
